Standard II — Integrity of Capital Markets Module 1 · 15-20% Weight Lesson 091

📖 年金:普通年金 vs 预付年金

CFA Level I · L091 · Annuities: Ordinary Annuity vs Annuity Due

📌 课题:年金的两张面孔 —— 先付 vs 后付,差一个 (1+r)


一、从单笔到多笔:为什么要学年金?

L089 和 L090 解决的是单笔现金流的 PV/FV 计算——一笔钱,一个起点,一个终点。

现实世界中,更多场景是一连串等额支付: - 每月还房贷 - 每年缴保费 - 每月领养老金 - 债券每半年付息一次

这些「等间隔、等金额」的系列现金流,就是年金(Annuity)。

🔑 年金的本质:把多笔现金流看成"一捆",用一套公式一次性算出 PV 或 FV——不需要逐笔折现。


二、两种年金的核心区别

2.1 普通年金(Ordinary Annuity)

支付发生在每期期末

时间线(5年期普通年金,每笔 PMT=1,000):

t=0      t=1      t=2      t=3      t=4      t=5
|--------|--------|--------|--------|--------|
        PMT      PMT      PMT      PMT      PMT
       (期末)   (期末)   (期末)   (期末)   (期末)

典型场景: - 贷款月供(你借款后,月末开始还款) - 债券利息(每半年/每年末付息) - 工资(月末发)

2.2 预付年金(Annuity Due)

支付发生在每期期初

时间线(同样5年期,每笔 PMT=1,000):

t=0      t=1      t=2      t=3      t=4      t=5
|--------|--------|--------|--------|--------|
PMT      PMT      PMT      PMT      PMT
(期初)   (期初)   (期初)   (期初)   (期初)

典型场景: - 房租(月初交) - 保险费(期初缴) - 租赁(先付后用)


三、核心关系:二者只差一个 (1+r)

这是 CFA 一级最高频考点之一:

关系 公式
PV(预付) PV_due = PV_ordinary × (1 + r)
FV(预付) FV_due = FV_ordinary × (1 + r)

3.1 为什么是 (1+r)?

直觉理解(以 PV 为例):

普通年金的每笔 PMT 发生在期末,预付年金的每笔 PMT 发生在期初。

预付年金每笔 PMT 比对应的普通年金早一期发生 → 少折现一期 → 现值更大。

用 5 笔年金来想: - 普通年金:第 1 笔在第 1 期末,折现 1 期;第 5 笔在第 5 期末,折现 5 期 - 预付年金:第 1 笔在第 0 期末(= 期初),不折现;第 5 笔在第 4 期末,折现 4 期

每笔都少折现了一期 → 整体 PV 乘以 (1+r)。

🧠 画图法:把普通年金的时间线整体向左平移一格,就是预付年金。平移后每笔 PMT 离 t=0 近了一格 → PV 变大,(1+r) 倍。


四、普通年金 PV 公式(基础砖块)

$$\boxed{PV_{\text{ordinary}} = PMT \times \frac{1 - (1+r)^{-n}}{r}}$$

$$= PMT \times PVIFA(r, n)$$

  • PVIFA = PV Interest Factor of Annuity(年金现值因子)
  • 含义:n 期、每期利率 r、每期 PMT=1 时,所有 PMT 折现到 t=0 的总值

实例计算

每年末收到 10,000 元,持续 5 年,折现率 6%。这些现金流今天的价值?

$$PV = 10{,}000 \times \frac{1 - (1.06)^{-5}}{0.06}$$

$$= 10{,}000 \times \frac{1 - 0.7473}{0.06}$$

$$= 10{,}000 \times \frac{0.2527}{0.06}$$

$$= 10{,}000 \times 4.2124 = 42{,}124$$

答案:42,124 元


五、从普通年金推导预付年金

5.1 预付年金 PV

用上面的例子,但改成每年初收到 10,000 元:

$$PV_{\text{due}} = PV_{\text{ordinary}} \times (1 + r)$$

$$= 42{,}124 \times 1.06 = 44{,}651$$

💡 年初收钱比年末收钱多值 2,527 元(≈6%)——因为这 5 笔钱各少折现了一年,总共提前了一期的价值。

5.2 预付年金 FV

先算普通年金 FV,再乘 (1+r):

$$\boxed{FV_{\text{ordinary}} = PMT \times \frac{(1+r)^n - 1}{r}}$$

$$\boxed{FV_{\text{due}} = FV_{\text{ordinary}} \times (1+r)}$$

实例: 每年初存 10,000 元,年利率 6%,5 年后本息和:

先算普通年金 FV(假设年末存):

$$FV_{\text{ord}} = 10{,}000 \times \frac{(1.06)^5 - 1}{0.06}$$

$$= 10{,}000 \times \frac{1.3382 - 1}{0.06}$$

$$= 10{,}000 \times 5.6371 = 56{,}371$$

再调为预付:

$$FV_{\text{due}} = 56{,}371 \times 1.06 = 59{,}753$$

答案:59,753 元——因为年初存,每笔钱多滚了一年。


六、对比速查表

维度 普通年金 预付年金
支付时点 期末 期初
现金流开始 t=1 末 t=0(立即)
典型场景 房贷、债券利息、工资 房租、保险、租赁
PV 大小 较小 PV × (1+r),较大
FV 大小 较小 FV × (1+r),较大
计算器模式 BGN 关闭(默认) BGN 开启
第一笔 PMT 折现 折 1 期 不折现

七、TI BA II Plus 操作要点

切换年金模式(考试陷阱高发区!)

操作 按键
进入 BGN 模式 2nd BGN → 2nd SET → 屏幕显示 BGN
退出 BGN 模式 2nd BGN → 2nd SET → BGN 消失
BGN 模式含义 每笔 PMT 在期初支付

⚠️ 考完一道预付年金题,必须立刻切回 END 模式!下一题很可能就是普通年金。BGN 忘关 = 全军覆没。

计算普通年金 PV(例:PMT=10,000, n=5, I/Y=6, 求 PV)

按键 含义
2nd CLR TVM 清除
2nd BGN → 确认 无 BGN 显示 期末模式
10000 PMT 每期付款
5 N 期数
6 I/Y 利率
0 FV 期末无余额
CPT PV 显示 -42,123.64 ✅

计算预付年金 PV(同上参数,只改模式)

按键 含义
2nd BGN → 2nd SET → 2nd QUIT 切换到 BGN
(其他按键同上)
CPT PV 显示 -44,651.05 ✅
⚠️ 算完后 立即 2nd BGN → 2nd SET 切回 END 🔴 不要忘!

八、考试常见陷阱

陷阱 1:计算器 BGN 模式残留 🔴🔴🔴

考场上最常见的致命错误。做完一道 Annuities Due 题后忘记切回 END,后面所有普通年金题全错。 ✅ 每算完一道预付年金,立刻按 2nd BGN → 2nd SET 回到 END。

陷阱 2:读题时漏掉"期初/期末"

  • "at the beginning of each year" → Annuity Due
  • "at the end of each year" → Ordinary Annuity
  • "first payment today" / "immediate" → Annuity Due
  • "first payment in one year" / "starting next year" → Ordinary Annuity

陷阱 3:把 PV_due 当成普通 PV 用于下一个计算

如果题目问"每月初还款,总共的现值是多少"——你用普通模式算就少了。必须开 BGN,或用普通模式算再乘 (1+r)。

陷阱 4:PV_due 的计算器报数 ≠ 手动公式

如果用 END 模式算 PV 再手乘 (1+r),结果和 BGN 模式直接算的结果应该一样。若不一致 → 检查是否用了正确模式。


九、实战例题

📝 例题 1:识别年金类型

判断以下场景是普通年金还是预付年金:

场景 类型 原因
每月 1 号交房租 预付 期初支付
每月 28 号发工资 普通 期末支付
30 年房贷月供 普通 借款后末月开始还
年初一次性缴全年保费 预付 期初支付
每年 12 月 31 日债券付息 普通 期末支付

📝 例题 2:普通年金 PV

你中了一个奖,每年末发 50,000 元,连续 20 年。折现率 5%。这笔奖金的现值是多少?

解:

$$PV = 50{,}000 \times \frac{1 - (1.05)^{-20}}{0.05}$$

$$= 50{,}000 \times \frac{1 - 0.3769}{0.05}$$

$$= 50{,}000 \times 12.4622 = 623{,}110$$

答案:约 623,110 元

💡 虽然 20 年总发放额是 100 万,但考虑到时间价值,今天的现值只有约 62.3 万。


📝 例题 3:预付年金 PV(同一问题,年初发)

同上,但改成每年初发 50,000 元。现值变为多少?

解:

$$PV_{\text{due}} = 623{,}110 \times 1.05 = 654{,}266$$

答案:约 654,266 元——比年末发放多了约 3.1 万,正好是 PV_ord 的 5%。


📝 例题 4:预付年金 FV

你每年初存入 12,000 元到年利率 8% 的账户。30 年后有多少钱?

解: 先算普通年金 FV(假设年末存)

$$FV_{\text{ord}} = 12{,}000 \times \frac{(1.08)^{30} - 1}{0.08}$$

(1.08)³⁰ ≈ 10.0627

$$= 12{,}000 \times \frac{10.0627 - 1}{0.08} = 12{,}000 \times 113.2832 = 1{,}359{,}399$$

再调为预付:

$$FV_{\text{due}} = 1{,}359{,}399 \times 1.08 = 1{,}468{,}151$$

答案:约 146.8 万元

📈 对比:如果年末存 = 135.9 万;年初存 = 146.8 万。30 年下来差近 11 万——这就是每笔钱多滚一年的复利威力。


十、关键公式速记

公式 名称 用途
PV_ord = PMT × [1−(1+r)⁻ⁿ]/r 普通年金 PV 基础砖块
FV_ord = PMT × [(1+r)ⁿ−1]/r 普通年金 FV 基础砖块
PV_due = PV_ord × (1+r) 预付年金 PV 快算口诀
FV_due = FV_ord × (1+r) 预付年金 FV 快算口诀

🧠 记忆口诀:预付 = 普通 × (1+r)——两张面孔,一个因子。


十一、练习题

Q1(概念识别)

以下哪种场景属于普通年金(Ordinary Annuity)?

A. 每月 1 号支付的房租 B. 每年初一次性缴纳的保费 C. 每月末支付的房贷月供 D. 立即支付第一笔分期付款


Q2(预付年金 PV)

你购买了一份年金产品:未来 10 年每年初支付 8,000 元,折现率 6%。该年金的现值最接近:

A. 58,881 B. 62,413 C. 66,000 D. 72,000


Q3(预付 vs 普通比较)

对于相同的 PMT、n 和 r,以下说法正确的是:

A. PV_due < PV_ordinary,FV_due < FV_ordinary B. PV_due > PV_ordinary,FV_due > FV_ordinary C. PV_due > PV_ordinary,FV_due < FV_ordinary D. PV_due = PV_ordinary,FV_due = FV_ordinary


Q4(预付年金 FV)

每年初投资 5,000 元,年利率 7%,20 年后终值为:

A. 204,977 B. 219,325 C. 225,000 D. 234,678


Q5(陷阱:计算器 BGN 模式)

你刚用 BGN 模式算完一道预付年金题,屏幕上仍显示 BGN。接下来你要计算一笔普通年金(期末支付)的 PV。如果你直接输入参数并 CPT PV:

A. 结果正确,模式不影响 PV 计算 B. 结果偏大,因为系统把每笔 PMT 当成了期初支付 C. 结果偏小 D. 计算器会报错


十二、课后思考

L089-L090 建立了单笔现金流的 PV/FV 双向计算。 L091 迈入年金——它把一捆等额现金流当成一个整体来估值。

普通年金(期末付)和预付年金(期初付)只差一个 (1+r) 因子——看似简单,但它是整个年金体系的地基。

L092 将接触永续年金:如果支付永不停歇,PV 怎么算?这会引出一个 CFA 一级最优美的公式……

📎 答案

Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5
C B B B B

解析:

  • Q1: 每月末支付的房贷月供 → 期末支付 → 普通年金。A/B/D 均为期初支付 → 预付年金。

  • Q2: 先算普通 PV:8,000 × [1−(1.06)⁻¹⁰]/0.06 = 8,000 × 7.3601 = 58,881。再乘 (1.06):58,881 × 1.06 = 62,413。

  • Q3: 预付年金每笔 PMT 比普通年金早一期 → 少折现、多滚利 → PV 和 FV 都更大。

  • Q4: 先算普通 FV:5,000 × [(1.07)²⁰−1]/0.07 = 5,000 × 40.9955 = 204,977。再乘 1.07 → 219,325。

  • Q5: BGN 模式会把第一笔 PMT 当成即刻发生(t=0),不计折现。结果比应有的普通年金 PV 偏大。必须切回 END 模式。

📌 Topic: The Two Faces of Annuities — Beginning vs End, One (1+r) Apart


I. From Single to Multiple Cash Flows: Why Annuities?

L089 and L090 covered PV/FV calculations for single cash flows — one payment, one starting point, one ending point.

In the real world, most scenarios involve a stream of equal payments: - Monthly mortgage payments - Annual insurance premiums - Monthly pension payouts - Semi-annual bond coupon payments

These series of equal, equally-spaced cash flows are called annuities.

🔑 The essence of an annuity: treat multiple cash flows as a "bundle" and compute PV or FV in one shot — no need to discount each payment individually.


II. The Core Distinction Between the Two Types

2.1 Ordinary Annuity

Payments occur at the END of each period

Timeline (5-year ordinary annuity, PMT = 1,000 each):

t=0      t=1      t=2      t=3      t=4      t=5
|--------|--------|--------|--------|--------|
        PMT      PMT      PMT      PMT      PMT
       (end)    (end)    (end)    (end)    (end)

Typical applications: - Loan repayments (you borrow, repayments start at the end of the first period) - Bond coupons (paid at the end of each period) - Salaries (paid at month-end)

2.2 Annuity Due

Payments occur at the BEGINNING of each period

Timeline (same 5-year span, PMT = 1,000 each):

t=0      t=1      t=2      t=3      t=4      t=5
|--------|--------|--------|--------|--------|
PMT      PMT      PMT      PMT      PMT
(beg)    (beg)    (beg)    (beg)    (beg)

Typical applications: - Rent (paid at the start of the month) - Insurance premiums (paid at the start of the period) - Leases (pay first, use later)


III. The Key Relationship: Only One (1+r) Apart

This is one of the most frequently tested concepts on CFA Level I:

Relationship Formula
PV (Due) PV_due = PV_ordinary × (1 + r)
FV (Due) FV_due = FV_ordinary × (1 + r)

3.1 Why (1+r)?

Intuition (using PV as an example):

In an ordinary annuity, each PMT occurs at period-end. In an annuity due, each PMT occurs at period-beginning.

Each payment in an annuity due is one period earlier than its counterpart in an ordinary annuity → discounted one fewer period → larger present value.

Consider a 5-payment annuity: - Ordinary: first payment at end of period 1 → discounted 1 period; fifth payment at end of period 5 → discounted 5 periods - Annuity Due: first payment at t=0 (immediate) → no discounting; fifth payment at end of period 4 → discounted 4 periods

Every payment is discounted one period less → the entire PV is multiplied by (1+r).

🧠 Visual trick: Shift the ordinary annuity timeline one space to the left, and you get an annuity due. After the shift, each PMT is one period closer to t=0 → PV increases by a factor of (1+r).


IV. Ordinary Annuity PV Formula (The Foundation)

$$\boxed{PV_{\text{ordinary}} = PMT \times \frac{1 - (1+r)^{-n}}{r}}$$

$$= PMT \times PVIFA(r, n)$$

  • PVIFA = PV Interest Factor of Annuity
  • Meaning: the total present value (at t=0) of n payments of $1 each, discounted at rate r

Calculation Example

Receive $10,000 at the end of each year for 5 years, discount rate 6%. What is the present value of these cash flows?

$$PV = 10{,}000 \times \frac{1 - (1.06)^{-5}}{0.06}$$

$$= 10{,}000 \times \frac{1 - 0.7473}{0.06}$$

$$= 10{,}000 \times \frac{0.2527}{0.06}$$

$$= 10{,}000 \times 4.2124 = 42{,}124$$

Answer: $42,124


V. Deriving Annuity Due from Ordinary Annuity

5.1 Annuity Due PV

Using the same example, but with payments at the beginning of each year:

$$PV_{\text{due}} = PV_{\text{ordinary}} \times (1 + r)$$

$$= 42{,}124 \times 1.06 = 44{,}651$$

💡 Receiving money at the beginning of each year is worth $2,527 more (≈6%) — because each of the 5 payments is discounted one year less.

5.2 Annuity Due FV

First compute ordinary annuity FV, then multiply by (1+r):

$$\boxed{FV_{\text{ordinary}} = PMT \times \frac{(1+r)^n - 1}{r}}$$

$$\boxed{FV_{\text{due}} = FV_{\text{ordinary}} \times (1+r)}$$

Example: Deposit $10,000 at the beginning of each year, interest rate 6%, for 5 years. Future value?

First, ordinary annuity FV (assuming end-of-year deposits):

$$FV_{\text{ord}} = 10{,}000 \times \frac{(1.06)^5 - 1}{0.06}$$

$$= 10{,}000 \times \frac{1.3382 - 1}{0.06}$$

$$= 10{,}000 \times 5.6371 = 56{,}371$$

Then adjust for annuity due:

$$FV_{\text{due}} = 56{,}371 \times 1.06 = 59{,}753$$

Answer: $59,753 — because deposits at the start of each year earn one extra year of compounding.


VI. Quick Comparison Table

Dimension Ordinary Annuity Annuity Due
Payment timing End of period Beginning of period
First cash flow t=1 (end of period 1) t=0 (immediate)
Typical examples Mortgages, bond coupons, salaries Rent, insurance, leases
PV magnitude Smaller PV × (1+r), larger
FV magnitude Smaller FV × (1+r), larger
Calculator mode BGN off (default) BGN on
First PMT discounted Discounted 1 period Not discounted

VII. TI BA II Plus Key Operations

Switching Annuity Mode (HIGH-RISK EXAM TRAP!)

Operation Keys
Enter BGN mode 2nd BGN → 2nd SET → screen shows BGN
Exit BGN mode 2nd BGN → 2nd SET → BGN disappears
BGN mode meaning Every PMT occurs at the beginning of the period

⚠️ After finishing an annuity due problem, immediately switch back to END mode! The next question is likely an ordinary annuity. Forgetting to turn BGN off = every subsequent answer wrong.

Compute Ordinary Annuity PV (Example: PMT=10,000, n=5, I/Y=6, find PV)

Keys Meaning
2nd CLR TVM Clear TVM memory
2nd BGN → Confirm no BGN display END mode
10000 PMT Payment per period
5 N Number of periods
6 I/Y Interest rate
0 FV No balance at end
CPT PV Displays -42,123.64 ✅

Compute Annuity Due PV (same parameters, only mode differs)

Keys Meaning
2nd BGN → 2nd SET → 2nd QUIT Switch to BGN
(remaining keys same as above)
CPT PV Displays -44,651.05 ✅
⚠️ After computing: IMMEDIATELY 2nd BGN → 2nd SET to return to END 🔴 DO NOT FORGET!

VIII. Common Exam Pitfalls

Trap 1: BGN Mode Left On 🔴🔴🔴

The most common fatal mistake on exam day. After solving an annuity due problem, forget to switch back to END — all subsequent ordinary annuity answers are wrong. ✅ After every annuity due problem, immediately press 2nd BGN → 2nd SET to return to END.

Trap 2: Missing "Beginning/End" Cues in the Question

  • "at the beginning of each year" → Annuity Due
  • "at the end of each year" → Ordinary Annuity
  • "first payment today" / "immediate" → Annuity Due
  • "first payment in one year" / "starting next year" → Ordinary Annuity

Trap 3: Using PV_due as Ordinary PV in Subsequent Calculations

If the question asks "monthly payments at the beginning, what is the total present value?" — using END mode will understate the result. You must either turn BGN on, or compute in END mode and multiply by (1+r).

Trap 4: Calculator Output ≠ Manual Formula

PV computed in BGN mode should match PV computed in END mode multiplied by (1+r). If they differ → check whether you're in the correct mode.


IX. Practice Examples

📝 Example 1: Identifying Annuity Type

Classify each scenario as ordinary annuity or annuity due:

Scenario Type Reason
Rent paid on the 1st of each month Due Payment at beginning
Salary paid on the 28th of each month Ordinary Payment at end
30-year mortgage monthly payments Ordinary Repayment starts at end of first month
Annual insurance premium paid upfront Due Payment at beginning
Bond interest paid every Dec 31 Ordinary Payment at end of period

📝 Example 2: Ordinary Annuity PV

You win a prize: $50,000 paid at the end of each year for 20 years. Discount rate is 5%. What is the present value?

Solution:

$$PV = 50{,}000 \times \frac{1 - (1.05)^{-20}}{0.05}$$

$$= 50{,}000 \times \frac{1 - 0.3769}{0.05}$$

$$= 50{,}000 \times 12.4622 = 623{,}110$$

Answer: ≈ $623,110

💡 Although total payments over 20 years equal $1,000,000, the present value today is only about $623K due to the time value of money.


📝 Example 3: Annuity Due PV (Same Problem, Beginning-of-Year Payments)

Same scenario, but payments at the beginning of each year. What is the PV now?

Solution:

$$PV_{\text{due}} = 623{,}110 \times 1.05 = 654{,}266$$

Answer: ≈ $654,266 — $31K more than end-of-year payments, exactly 5% of PV_ord.


📝 Example 4: Annuity Due FV

You deposit $12,000 at the beginning of each year into an account earning 8% annually. How much will you have after 30 years?

Solution: First compute ordinary annuity FV (assuming end-of-year deposits)

$$FV_{\text{ord}} = 12{,}000 \times \frac{(1.08)^{30} - 1}{0.08}$$

(1.08)³⁰ ≈ 10.0627

$$= 12{,}000 \times \frac{10.0627 - 1}{0.08} = 12{,}000 \times 113.2832 = 1{,}359{,}399$$

Then adjust for annuity due:

$$FV_{\text{due}} = 1{,}359{,}399 \times 1.08 = 1{,}468{,}151$$

Answer: ≈ $1,468,151

📈 Comparison: end-of-year deposits = $1,359,399; beginning-of-year deposits = $1,468,151. Over 30 years, the difference is nearly $109K — the power of one extra year of compounding on every deposit.


X. Key Formula Summary

Formula Name Use
PV_ord = PMT × [1−(1+r)⁻ⁿ]/r Ordinary Annuity PV Foundation
FV_ord = PMT × [(1+r)ⁿ−1]/r Ordinary Annuity FV Foundation
PV_due = PV_ord × (1+r) Annuity Due PV Quick conversion
FV_due = FV_ord × (1+r) Annuity Due FV Quick conversion

🧠 Memory aid: Due = Ordinary × (1+r) — two faces, one factor.


XI. Practice Questions

Q1 (Concept Identification)

Which of the following is an ordinary annuity?

A. Rent paid on the 1st of each month B. Annual insurance premium paid at the start of the year C. Monthly mortgage payments made at the end of each month D. First installment paid immediately upon purchase


Q2 (Annuity Due PV)

You purchase an annuity product that pays $8,000 at the beginning of each year for 10 years. The discount rate is 6%. The present value is closest to:

A. $58,881 B. $62,413 C. $66,000 D. $72,000


Q3 (Due vs Ordinary Comparison)

For identical PMT, n, and r, which statement is correct?

A. PV_due < PV_ordinary, and FV_due < FV_ordinary B. PV_due > PV_ordinary, and FV_due > FV_ordinary C. PV_due > PV_ordinary, but FV_due < FV_ordinary D. PV_due = PV_ordinary, and FV_due = FV_ordinary


Q4 (Annuity Due FV)

You invest $5,000 at the beginning of each year at 7% annual interest. The future value after 20 years is:

A. $204,977 B. $219,325 C. $225,000 D. $234,678


Q5 (Trap: BGN Mode)

You just solved an annuity due problem and the BGN indicator is still on screen. You now need to compute the PV of an ordinary annuity (end-of-period payments). If you enter the parameters and press CPT PV without changing modes:

A. The result is correct — mode does not affect PV calculations B. The result will be overstated — the calculator treats each PMT as a beginning-of-period payment C. The result will be understated D. The calculator will display an error


XII. After-Class Reflection

L089–L090 built the PV/FV framework for single cash flows. L091 enters the world of annuities — treating a stream of equal cash flows as a single unit of valuation.

Ordinary annuity (end-of-period) and annuity due (beginning-of-period) differ by just one (1+r) factor — seemingly simple, yet it is the foundation of the entire annuity framework.

L092 will introduce perpetuities: if payments never stop, how do you compute PV? This leads to one of the most elegant formulas in CFA Level I...

📎 Answers

Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5
C B B B B

Explanations:

  • Q1: Monthly mortgage payments at month-end → end-of-period → Ordinary Annuity. A/B/D are all beginning-of-period payments → Annuity Due.

  • Q2: First compute ordinary PV: $8,000 × [1−(1.06)⁻¹⁰]/0.06 = $8,000 × 7.3601 = $58,881. Then multiply by 1.06: $58,881 × 1.06 = $62,413.

  • Q3: Annuity due payments are always one period earlier → discounted less, compounded more → both PV and FV are larger.

  • Q4: First compute ordinary FV: $5,000 × [(1.07)²⁰−1]/0.07 = $5,000 × 40.9955 = $204,977. Then multiply by 1.07 → $219,325.

  • Q5: BGN mode treats the first PMT as occurring at t=0 (immediate, no discounting). The result will be higher than the correct ordinary annuity PV. You must switch back to END mode.

🔜 下一课 · L092

CFA 一级 · L092 · 年金 PV/FV 计算 — 📌 课题:五个变量,四个方向 —— 年金的万能计算 · 一、L091 回顾与 L092 进阶 · 二、五个变量的关系图谱