经济学 · Economics Module 1 · 15-20% Weight Lesson 184

📖 汇率基础:即期与远期

CFA Level I — L184: Exchange Rates: Spot and Forward

录音未生成(本课暂无语音朗读)

经济学(Economics)

一、本课定位

课次 主题 能力
L184 汇率基础:即期与远期 能够定义即期汇率、远期汇率、升水/贴水,计算远期汇率、无套利远期汇率、远期溢价/折价,并解释汇率报价惯例与套利机制

二、我们要解决什么问题?

一家中国出口商3个月后将收到100万美元货款,目前即期汇率为USD/CNY = 7.15。如果未来人民币升值,出口商收到的人民币将减少;如果使用远期合约锁定汇率,又该如何定价才能使双方均无套利机会?本课将系统讲解即期汇率与远期汇率的定义、报价方法、计算公式以及无套利定价原理,帮助考生在考试中准确判断汇率升贴水、计算远期汇率并识别套利机会。

三、汇率的基本概念与报价惯例

汇率(Exchange Rate)是两种货币之间的相对价格,通常以一种货币表示另一种货币的价格。

直接标价法(Direct Quote):以本币表示外币的价格。例如在中国,USD/CNY = 7.15 表示1美元等于7.15元人民币。中国市场采用直接标价法。

间接标价法(Indirect Quote):以外币表示本币的价格。例如GBP/USD = 1.28 表示1英镑等于1.28美元。美国、英国等市场常用间接标价法。

汇率报价中的“基数货币(Base Currency)”与“标价货币(Price Currency)”: - USD/CNY = 7.15 中,USD是基数货币,CNY是标价货币。 - 汇率上升意味着基数货币升值(或标价货币贬值)。

双边报价(Bid-Ask Quote): - Bid:做市商愿意买入基数货币的价格(客户卖出价)。 - Ask/Offer:做市商愿意卖出基数货币的价格(客户买入价)。 - 买卖价差(Spread)= Ask - Bid,反映流动性与交易成本。

例:某银行报价 USD/CNY = 7.1480 / 7.1520 - 客户想卖出美元(买入人民币)→ 使用Bid价7.1480 - 客户想买入美元(卖出人民币)→ 使用Ask价7.1520

四、即期汇率(Spot Rate)

即期汇率是当前立即交割(通常T+2个工作日)的汇率,记为$S_{f/d}$,其中$f$为外币(foreign),$d$为本币(domestic)。

在CFA考试中,常用“外币每单位本币”或“本币每单位外币”的形式表达,考生必须熟练转换。

即期汇率升值与贬值: - 若USD/CNY从7.15升至7.25,说明人民币贬值(需要更多人民币才能买1美元),美元升值。 - 百分比变化:$\frac{S_1 - S_0}{S_0} \times 100\%$

五、远期汇率(Forward Rate)与远期溢价/折价

远期汇率是双方约定在未来某一确定日期交割的汇率,记为$F_{f/d,t}$,$t$为到期期限(以年为单位)。

远期升水(Forward Premium):远期汇率高于即期汇率($F > S$),此时基数货币在远期市场更贵。 远期贴水(Forward Discount):远期汇率低于即期汇率($F < S$)。

年化远期溢价/折价(Forward Premium/Discount) 计算公式: $$ \text{Forward Premium (Discount)} = \frac{F_{f/d} - S_{f/d}}{S_{f/d}} \times \frac{360}{t} \times 100\% $$ 其中$t$为合约剩余天数(CFA常用360天年化)。

注意:当使用直接标价法(本币/外币)时,公式中正值表示外币远期升水(本币远期贴水)。

六、无套利远期汇率(No-Arbitrage Forward Rate)

远期汇率由利率平价(Interest Rate Parity, IRP)决定,核心思想是:通过即期外汇市场与货币市场借贷构建的合成远期必须与实际远期汇率相等,否则存在套利机会。

抛补利率平价(Covered Interest Rate Parity)公式: $$ F_{f/d} = S_{f/d} \times \frac{(1 + i_f \times \frac{t}{360})}{(1 + i_d \times \frac{t}{360})} $$ 其中: - $i_f$:外币无风险利率 - $i_d$:本币无风险利率 - $t$:远期合约天数

当$i_d > i_f$时,本币利率较高,远期汇率$F < S$,即基数货币(外币)远期升水。

近似公式(当利率与期限较小时): $$ \frac{F - S}{S} \approx (i_d - i_f) \times \frac{t}{360} $$

七、汇率套利机制

若实际远期汇率偏离无套利远期汇率,就会出现抛补套利(Covered Interest Arbitrage): 1. 当实际$F >$ 理论$F$:借外币、即期换成本币、投资本币、同时卖出远期锁定本币归还外币。 2. 当实际$F <$ 理论$F$:借本币、即期换成外币、投资外币、同时买入远期锁定外币归还本币。

套利活动会迅速使实际远期汇率回归理论值。

完整案例演算

案例 1:远期溢价/折价计算

当前即期汇率 USD/CNY = 7.0800,3个月远期汇率 = 7.1200(90天)。计算年化远期溢价(以美元为基数货币)。

计算: $$ \text{Premium} = \frac{7.1200 - 7.0800}{7.0800} \times \frac{360}{90} \times 100\% = 0.00565 \times 4 \times 100\% = 2.26\% $$ 结论:美元远期升水2.26%(人民币远期贴水2.26%)。

案例 2:无套利远期汇率计算

即期汇率 EUR/USD = 1.0850(间接标价,美国视角)。美国1年期利率3.0%,欧元区1年期利率1.2%。计算1年期理论远期汇率。

计算: $$ F = 1.0850 \times \frac{1 + 0.012}{1 + 0.030} = 1.0850 \times \frac{1.012}{1.030} = 1.0850 \times 0.9825 = 1.0660 $$ 结论:欧元远期贴水($F < S$),符合较高美元利率导致欧元远期升水(从美元角度看欧元便宜)。

案例 3:抛补套利机会判断

即期 GBP/USD = 1.2500,英国利率4%,美国利率2%,6个月(180天)实际远期汇率 = 1.2650。判断是否存在套利机会并计算无套利远期汇率。

理论远期: $$ F = 1.2500 \times \frac{1 + 0.04 \times 180/360}{1 + 0.02 \times 180/360} = 1.2500 \times \frac{1.02}{1.01} = 1.2500 \times 1.0099 = 1.2624 $$ 实际远期1.2650 > 理论1.2624,存在套利:借英镑→即期换美元→投资美元→远期卖出美元买入英镑归还。

易错陷阱对照

易错点 错误做法 正确做法
标价法混淆 认为USD/CNY上升是人民币升值 USD/CNY上升代表人民币贬值,美元升值
溢价/折价方向 直接用$F-S$判断而不看基数货币 必须明确“基数货币”的升贴水
天数年化 用365天而非CFA常用360天 CFA考试统一使用360天年化
利率平价公式倒置 把$i_f$和$i_d$位置放反 分子为外币利率,分母为本币利率
双边报价使用错误 用中间价做套利计算 套利必须使用Bid/Ask最不利价格
近似公式误用 在利率差或期限较大时仍用近似式 应使用精确复利公式

关键公式 / 关系速记

  • 年化远期溢价/折价:$\frac{F-S}{S} \times \frac{360}{t} \times 100\%$
  • 精确无套利远期汇率:$F = S \times \frac{1 + i_f \times (t/360)}{1 + i_d \times (t/360)}$
  • 近似利率平价:$\frac{F-S}{S} \approx (i_d - i_f) \times (t/360)$
  • 汇率百分比变化:$\frac{S_1 - S_0}{S_0}$
  • 基数货币升值 ⇔ 汇率(直接标价)上升

练习题(含计算与情景)

Q1. 如果USD/CNY即期汇率从6.95升至7.05,则:
A. 人民币升值
B. 美元贬值
C. 人民币贬值约1.44%
D. 美元贬值约1.44%

Q2. 某银行报价EUR/USD = 1.0820/1.0825。客户若想买入欧元,需要支付的价格是:
A. 1.0820
B. 1.0825
C. 中间价1.08225
D. 1.0820(因为是Bid)

Q3. 即期汇率GBP/USD = 1.3000,90天远期汇率 = 1.2920。英镑的远期状态是:
A. 升水
B. 贴水
C. 平价
D. 无法判断

Q4. 即期USD/JPY = 110.00,日本1年利率0.1%,美国1年利率3.0%。根据利率平价,1年期远期USD/JPY最接近:
A. 106.81
B. 113.19
C. 110.00
D. 109.78

Q5. 年化远期溢价计算中使用360天的主要原因是:
A. 更精确
B. CFA考试惯例与货币市场计息习惯一致
C. 只有日元使用360天
D. 避免闰年影响

Q6. 若实际远期汇率高于根据利率平价计算的理论远期汇率,套利者应:
A. 借本币、投资外币、远期卖出外币
B. 借外币、投资本币、远期卖出本币
C. 借本币、投资本币
D. 不存在套利机会

Q7. 某出口商3个月后收到500万欧元,目前EUR/CNY即期=7.85,3个月远期=7.92。中国无风险利率2.8%,欧元区1.5%(均为年化)。该出口商锁定的人民币收入最接近(假设使用远期合约):
A. 39,250,000元
B. 39,600,000元
C. 39,000,000元
D. 无法计算

Q8. 以下哪种情况最可能出现远期贴水(以直接标价法本币/外币表示):
A. 本币利率高于外币利率
B. 本币利率低于外币利率
C. 两国利率相等
D. 通胀差异主导

答案与详解

题号 答案 详解
Q1 C $(7.05-6.95)/6.95 \approx 0.0144=1.44\%$,USD/CNY上升代表人民币贬值
Q2 B 客户买入基数货币(EUR)使用Ask价1.0825
Q3 B $F=1.2920 < S=1.3000$,英镑远期贴水
Q4 A $F=110 \times (1+0.001)/(1+0.03) \approx 110 \times 0.9718 = 106.90$,最接近106.81
Q5 B CFA及货币市场LIBOR/SOFR传统使用360天计息
Q6 B 实际$F>$理论$F$时,借外币→换本币投资→远期卖出本币(买入外币还款)
Q7 B 500万欧元 × 7.92 = 39,600,000元(远期合约直接锁定汇率)
Q8 A 本币利率较高时,根据IRP,$F < S$,外币远期升水,即本币/外币标价下远期汇率下降,表现为远期贴水

本节要点速记

  • 直接标价法下汇率上升 = 外币升值 / 本币贬值
  • 远期汇率由抛补利率平价决定,利率差是核心驱动因素
  • $F = S \times \frac{1+i_f(t/360)}{1+i_d(t/360)}$ 是最重要公式
  • 基数货币利率较低 → 基数货币远期升水
  • 必须区分Bid/Ask并使用360天年化
  • 实际远期偏离理论值即存在抛补套利机会,套利会使价格回归均衡

Economics

I. Lesson Focus

This lesson explains the fundamental mechanics of spot and forward foreign exchange markets. Candidates must master quotation conventions (direct vs. indirect), bid-ask spreads, calculation of forward premiums and discounts, the covered interest rate parity condition, no-arbitrage forward pricing, and the identification of covered interest arbitrage opportunities. These concepts form the foundation for later topics on currency risk management and international parity conditions.

II. The Problem

A Chinese exporter will receive USD 1 million in three months. The current spot rate is USD/CNY = 7.15. If the renminbi appreciates, the exporter will receive fewer CNY. How should a three-month forward contract be priced so that neither party can earn a riskless profit? This lesson systematically develops the definitions of spot and forward rates, quotation conventions, premium/discount calculations, the interest rate parity formula, and arbitrage mechanisms so candidates can solve such problems accurately on the exam.

III. Basic Concepts and Quotation Conventions

An exchange rate is the relative price of two currencies, expressed as the price of one currency in terms of another.

Direct quotation: Expresses the price of foreign currency in domestic currency units. In China, USD/CNY = 7.15 means 1 USD costs 7.15 CNY. China and most emerging markets use direct quotes.

Indirect quotation: Expresses the price of domestic currency in foreign currency units. GBP/USD = 1.28 means 1 GBP buys 1.28 USD. The United States and United Kingdom commonly use indirect quotes.

Base currency and price (quote) currency: - In USD/CNY = 7.15, USD is the base currency and CNY is the price currency. - An increase in the quoted rate means the base currency appreciates (or the price currency depreciates).

Bid-ask quotes: - Bid: The price at which the dealer is willing to buy the base currency (client sells base currency). - Ask (Offer): The price at which the dealer is willing to sell the base currency (client buys base currency). - Spread = Ask – Bid, reflecting liquidity and transaction costs.

Example: A bank quotes USD/CNY = 7.1480 / 7.1520. - Client selling USD (buying CNY) receives the bid rate 7.1480. - Client buying USD (selling CNY) pays the ask rate 7.1520.

IV. Spot Exchange Rates

The spot rate is the exchange rate for immediate delivery (usually T+2 business days), denoted $S_{f/d}$ where $f$ is the foreign currency and $d$ is the domestic currency.

CFA exams frequently require conversion between “foreign currency per domestic currency” and “domestic currency per foreign currency” forms.

Appreciation and depreciation: - If USD/CNY moves from 7.15 to 7.25, the renminbi has depreciated (more CNY needed to buy one USD) and the dollar has appreciated. - Percentage change: $\frac{S_1 - S_0}{S_0} \times 100\%$.

V. Forward Rates and Forward Premium/Discount

A forward rate is the exchange rate agreed today for settlement on a future date, denoted $F_{f/d,t}$ where $t$ is time to maturity in years.

Forward premium: Occurs when $F > S$; the base currency is more expensive in the forward market. Forward discount: Occurs when $F < S$.

Annualized forward premium/discount: $$ \text{Forward Premium (Discount)} = \frac{F_{f/d} - S_{f/d}}{S_{f/d}} \times \frac{360}{t} \times 100\% $$ where $t$ is days to maturity. CFA uses a 360-day year convention for money-market calculations.

When using direct quotes (domestic per foreign), a positive value indicates the foreign currency is at a forward premium (domestic currency at a forward discount).

VI. No-Arbitrage Forward Rate — Covered Interest Rate Parity (IRP)

The forward rate is determined by the no-arbitrage condition between the spot FX market and the money markets in the two currencies.

Covered Interest Rate Parity formula: $$ F_{f/d} = S_{f/d} \times \frac{1 + i_f \times (t/360)}{1 + i_d \times (t/360)} $$ where $i_f$ = foreign risk-free interest rate, $i_d$ = domestic risk-free interest rate, and $t$ = days to maturity.

When the domestic interest rate exceeds the foreign rate ($i_d > i_f$), the forward rate $F < S$, meaning the foreign (base) currency trades at a forward premium.

Approximation (valid when rates and tenor are small): $$ \frac{F - S}{S} \approx (i_d - i_f) \times \frac{t}{360} $$

VII. Covered Interest Arbitrage Mechanism

If the quoted forward rate deviates from the IRP-implied rate, riskless arbitrage exists: - When actual $F >$ theoretical $F$: Borrow foreign currency, convert to domestic at spot, invest in domestic money market, and sell domestic currency forward to repay the foreign loan. - When actual $F <$ theoretical $F$: Borrow domestic currency, convert to foreign at spot, invest in foreign money market, and buy foreign currency forward to repay the domestic loan.

Arbitrage activity quickly eliminates the mispricing, restoring parity.

Worked Cases

Case 1: Forward Premium/Discount Calculation

Spot USD/CNY = 7.0800, 90-day forward = 7.1200. Calculate the annualized forward premium on the USD.

Solution: $$ \text{Premium} = \frac{7.1200 - 7.0800}{7.0800} \times \frac{360}{90} \times 100\% = 0.00565 \times 4 \times 100\% = 2.26\% $$ The USD is at an annualized forward premium of 2.26% (CNY at a 2.26% forward discount).

Case 2: No-Arbitrage Forward Rate

Spot EUR/USD = 1.0850 (indirect quote from U.S. perspective). U.S. one-year rate = 3.0%, eurozone one-year rate = 1.2%. Calculate the one-year theoretical forward rate.

Solution: $$ F = 1.0850 \times \frac{1 + 0.012}{1 + 0.030} = 1.0850 \times \frac{1.012}{1.030} = 1.0850 \times 0.9825 \approx 1.0660 $$ The euro is at a forward discount ($F < S$), consistent with the higher U.S. interest rate.

Case 3: Identifying Covered Arbitrage Opportunity

Spot GBP/USD = 1.2500, UK rate = 4%, U.S. rate = 2%, actual 180-day forward = 1.2650. Compute the theoretical forward and determine whether arbitrage exists.

Solution: $$ F = 1.2500 \times \frac{1 + 0.04 \times (180/360)}{1 + 0.02 \times (180/360)} = 1.2500 \times \frac{1.02}{1.01} = 1.2500 \times 1.0099 \approx 1.2624 $$ Actual forward (1.2650) > theoretical forward (1.2624). Arbitrage: borrow GBP, convert to USD at spot, invest in USD, and sell USD forward (buy GBP forward) to repay the GBP loan.

Traps

Common Mistake Incorrect Approach Correct Approach
Quotation confusion Believing rising USD/CNY means CNY appreciation Rising USD/CNY = CNY depreciation, USD appreciation
Premium/discount direction Using $F-S$ sign without identifying base currency Always state premium/discount relative to the base currency
Day-count convention Using 365 instead of 360 CFA and money markets use 360-day convention
IRP formula inversion Reversing $i_f$ and $i_d$ Numerator uses foreign rate, denominator uses domestic rate
Ignoring bid-ask Using mid-rate for arbitrage Must use the worst-case (bid or ask) rate for realistic arbitrage
Misapplying approximation Using linear approximation when rates or tenor are large Use the exact compounding formula

Key Formulas

  • Annualized forward premium/discount: $\frac{F-S}{S} \times \frac{360}{t} \times 100\%$
  • Exact no-arbitrage forward rate: $F = S \times \frac{1 + i_f(t/360)}{1 + i_d(t/360)}$
  • Approximate IRP: $\frac{F-S}{S} \approx (i_d - i_f) \times (t/360)$
  • Percentage change in spot rate: $\frac{S_1 - S_0}{S_0}$
  • Base currency appreciation ⇔ increase in direct quote (domestic per foreign)

Practice Questions

Q1. If the spot USD/CNY rate rises from 6.95 to 7.05, then:
A. The renminbi has appreciated
B. The USD has depreciated
C. The renminbi has depreciated by approximately 1.44%
D. The USD has depreciated by approximately 1.44%

Q2. A bank quotes EUR/USD = 1.0820/1.0825. A client wishing to buy euros must pay:
A. 1.0820
B. 1.0825
C. Mid-rate 1.08225
D. 1.0820 (the bid)

Q3. Spot GBP/USD = 1.3000, 90-day forward = 1.2920. The GBP is trading at a forward:
A. Premium
B. Discount
C. Parity
D. Cannot be determined

Q4. Spot USD/JPY = 110.00, Japanese one-year rate = 0.1%, U.S. one-year rate = 3.0%. According to IRP, the one-year forward USD/JPY is closest to:
A. 106.81
B. 113.19
C. 110.00
D. 109.78

Q5. The main reason CFA uses 360 days to annualize forward premiums is:
A. Greater precision
B. Consistency with money-market day-count conventions
C. Only the yen uses 360 days
D. To avoid leap-year effects

Q6. If the actual forward rate is higher than the IRP-implied rate, the arbitrageur should:
A. Borrow domestic, invest foreign, sell foreign forward
B. Borrow foreign, invest domestic, sell domestic forward
C. Borrow and invest in the domestic currency only
D. Do nothing; no arbitrage exists

Q7. An exporter will receive EUR 5 million in three months. Spot EUR/CNY = 7.85, three-month forward = 7.92. Using the forward contract, the exporter can lock in CNY proceeds closest to:
A. CNY 39,250,000
B. CNY 39,600,000
C. CNY 39,000,000
D. Cannot be calculated

Q8. Under direct quotation (domestic per foreign), a forward discount on the quoted rate is most likely when:
A. Domestic interest rate > foreign interest rate
B. Domestic interest rate < foreign interest rate
C. Interest rates are equal
D. Inflation differentials dominate

Answers

Question Answer Explanation
Q1 C $(7.05-6.95)/6.95 \approx 0.0144 = 1.44\%$. Rising USD/CNY means CNY depreciation.
Q2 B Client buying the base currency (EUR) transacts at the ask price 1.0825.
Q3 B $F = 1.2920 < S = 1.3000$, so GBP is at a forward discount.
Q4 A $F = 110 \times (1+0.001)/(1+0.03) \approx 110 \times 0.9718 = 106.90$, closest to 106.81.
Q5 B CFA and money-market conventions (LIBOR/SOFR) use a 360-day year.
Q6 B When actual $F >$ theoretical $F$, borrow foreign, convert to domestic, invest domestically, and sell domestic currency forward.
Q7 B EUR 5 m × 7.92 = CNY 39,600,000. The forward contract directly locks the rate.
Q8 A Higher domestic rates imply $F < S$ (foreign currency at forward premium), so the direct quote falls, producing a forward discount.

Takeaways

  • Under direct quotation, a rising exchange rate means foreign-currency appreciation and domestic-currency depreciation.
  • Forward rates are determined by covered interest rate parity; the interest-rate differential is the primary driver.
  • The exact IRP formula $F = S \times \frac{1+i_f(t/360)}{1+i_d(t/360)}$ is the most important relationship.
  • Lower interest rate currency trades at a forward premium.
  • Always use the 360-day convention and respect bid-ask spreads in calculations.
  • Any deviation between quoted and theoretical forward rates creates a covered interest arbitrage opportunity that forces prices back to equilibrium.

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